Zigner
Senior Member, Non-Attorney
The following is based on the assumption that the attorney didn't represent you in the prior matters:What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)?
NC
A long time ago I ran my business and had multiple parties involved receiving percentages. There were two overseas parties and a single party from here in the states. The two overseas parties and I stopped working with the one from the states and he turned around and sued the company and me. We settled and now I am paying him. Soon after this the two overseas parties quit working with me and tried to destroy the business by taking our online software down and making it to where I couldn't do anything about it. They tried to sabotoge the business and steal customers afterwards.
I received notice from THE SAME lawyer that represented the party from here in the states that he is now representing the overseas developers.
This is a conflict of intrest because:
The lawyer was representing the party from here in the states against me and the business (which included the overseas parters at the time) and now he is representing the overseas developers too.
The overseas developers were and still are directly effecting my means of paying the lawyers first client (the one from the US).
I was wondering if since he is not my lawyer, if I can still file a malpractice claim against him? He is clearly out of line, and I'm not sure why his first client is okay with this. I believe it is an attempt for all parties invloved to attempt to disparage me.
What you have described isn't necessarily a conflict of interest. Heck, I'd be willing to bet that the attorney has all his i's dotted and t's crossed to ensure that it's not a conflict.
Furthermore, even if there is some sort of conflict, you don't have any basis to sue over it.