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Old 07-13-2005, 12:31 PM
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Join Date: Jul 2005
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Question

Debts incurred during a previous marriage


What is the name of your state? West Virginia

Druing my husband's past marriage, there were debts incurred that were split equally between him and his ex wife. He was never given any payment information from her (as to where to send the payments) on a loan that was taken out for their future home. Due to this, he has not made a payment. His ex-wife has since remarried and her new husband has taken out a personal loan in his name to pay off all debts that she/he owned jointly to try and fix her credit so she could co-own two businesses that they wanted to open. This was done without my husband's knowledge and consent, no written or verbal agreement was made between them for payment.
Due to recent child support battles that my husband is not willing to settle out of court, they want the money that he was supposed to pay to the loan company to be paid to them. Is this legally possible? He and I both understand that he owes the debt and was court-ordered to pay it, but according to the loan comany, it has been paid and is solved. Also, his ex-wife is stating that she can have MY check garnished for the payments. Is this possible? I don't understand why because I was not the one to incur the debt and did not make the decision to take out the loan in the first place. Someone has told me that since we are married, his debts are mine and vice versa. Just wanting some information. We have an appt. with a family lawyer in our state and city for this issue, this is just bothering me. Any information would be apperciated. Thank you.

Last edited by shadyobx; 07-13-2005 at 12:35 PM.
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