newstart18
Member
Hello, I have a question about dower rights. I live in Ohio. I have a friend who is filing for divorce, from her husband who will not be a willing partner in the divorce. He has a record of domestic violence, alcoholism, is terminally unemployed, etc. She owns two rental properties that are in her name only, that she owned and had sole title to prior to her marriage. She has a good deal of debt, including being behind on property taxes on the better of her two properties. She would like to sell the lesser of the two properties to get funds to pay back taxes on the 2nd property, and pay her attorney for the divorce. She was told that she cannot sell this property without her husband signing away his dower rights. My thinking is that since she owned this property prior to her marriage (with no mortgage or other liens attached) in her name only, and it has remained in her name only, she does not need to have her husband sign away dower rights, because none exist. Her husband will definitely not sign, as he will fight against the divorce and be completely uncooperative. The question is - does she need to have him sign away dower rights? Thanks in advance.