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  #1  
Old 08-08-2008, 06:07 PM
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Question

unintensional bigamy


Texas
my husband got a divorce ten years ago, then we met and got married. Now we found that his divorce is not valid. can he be prosecuted for bigamy?
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  #2  
Old 08-08-2008, 06:56 PM
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Originally Posted by nita555 View Post
Texas
my husband got a divorce ten years ago, then we met and got married. Now we found that his divorce is not valid. can he be prosecuted for bigamy?
What is the reason that his divorce is invalid?
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  #3  
Old 08-11-2008, 06:33 PM
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first marriage was in Jordan; ex wife was able to proof that the signature on divorce papers is not hers and is asking for alimony and child support.
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Old 08-11-2008, 09:29 PM
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Originally Posted by nita555 View Post
first marriage was in Jordan; ex wife was able to proof that the signature on divorce papers is not hers and is asking for alimony and child support.
So he committed fraud? That is not unintentional. That is a crime. The US can most definitely prosecute him for bigamy.
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Parents should remember two things: Love your kids more than you hate your ex (or soon to be ex) and when you have children the relationship with the other parent is until death parts you.

Nothing stated by me should be taken as giving you legal advice or forming an attorney/client relationship. My advice is based on the law and not deemed to necessarily apply to the specifics of your case. The devil is in the details after all.
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  #5  
Old 08-12-2008, 12:53 PM
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Originally Posted by Ohiogal View Post
So he committed fraud? That is not unintentional. That is a crime. The US can most definitely prosecute him for bigamy.
**A: among other things.
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