rivers23

1 year ago I purchased 50% of a business which is in a leased building. The person I purchased the business from and the other partner remained on the lease agreement. Both of those people on the lease agreement went bankrupt and so we closed the business because I could not take it on by myself. I had been working with the owner of the building to sell the business and I have kept the equipment in there. The busines has yet to sell. Now the owner is saying that by paying for 50% of the business that I "assumed" the lease. I did not sign a lease agreement with the owner nor the management company. The paper work that I signed when I purchased 50% of the business states that I purchased the "business". No mention of "equipment". So the owner wants to keep the equipment as well. They are saying since assuming the business, I assume the lease and will now be responsible for the back rent. Would this hold up in court?? Wouldn't I have had to actually "sign" a lease agreement??? And yes, the business name is on the lease agreement as well as the person's name I bought 1/2 of the business from as well as the other partner.