My mother and father bought a home 32 years ago, but eventually got a divorce 7 years after that.
Although my mother signed the divorce papers, she never signed anything turning the house over to my dad (whom I have been estranged from since the divorce)...no Quit Claim Deed, etc.
My father remarried and a title search indicates his name and his new wife's name on the property. However, my mother insists that the house deed is still in her name. That explains why he has never sold the house and it has remained as an unattended rental all these years.
Does my mom have a point? That the house deed is still in her name? That although the title is not, that house cannot be sold without her signature?
Although my mother signed the divorce papers, she never signed anything turning the house over to my dad (whom I have been estranged from since the divorce)...no Quit Claim Deed, etc.
My father remarried and a title search indicates his name and his new wife's name on the property. However, my mother insists that the house deed is still in her name. That explains why he has never sold the house and it has remained as an unattended rental all these years.
Does my mom have a point? That the house deed is still in her name? That although the title is not, that house cannot be sold without her signature?