Deeding to relatives

[LAYLA22]

What is the name of your state? PA
We want to buy 2 houses (same deed, different parcels) from my mother-in-law for less than the appraised price of one house. We now live in house 'A'. Someone said we should have her "deed" house 'B' to us rather than separate the deed; which would entail a survey, etc. Then, just get a mortgage for house 'A'. Is this legal? What's the process? What are the pros/cons of this?
Another option... is it legal, if her mortgage company agrees, for us to just take over her mortgage on our house ('B' is clear); thus, foregoing any closing costs, etc.? She would still deed us house 'B'. What steps should we take to do this? HELP!!!

[FlyingRon]

I'm confused. If these are already separate parcels (even if they were deeded to mom in a single deed) then all she would have to do is deed the parcels to you as she wishes. She could deed parcel A and parcel B in seperate deeds or the same one. Regardless of how you do this the bank is still going to insist on a survey to finance the properties I can almost guarantee.

You can inquire from the bank as to assuming the loan.

Why would she deed her house to you to begin with if she is still living there?

[LAYLA22]

Sorry. We live in House 'A' & pay rent that's SUPPOSED to be going toward the mortgage. It hasn't & it's now almost in foreclosure. The mortgage isn't assumable (even if it were, we don't want to do that b/c all the bad history would follow, or so I'm told). We want to buy 'A' and have her deed-over House 'B' (which is a rental property) for $1.00. She needs at least enough for 'A' to pay off the mortgage. She doesn't live in either property. We want to avoid a survey b/c that would be considered subdivision in our town & we'd have to go through meetings & red tape & lots of $$. Thanks for advice, sorry for confusion! ~L22~