![]() |
| ||||||||||||
| |||||||||||||
| | |||||||||||||
| |||||||
| | |
![]() |
| | LinkBack | Thread Tools | Rate Thread | Display Modes |
|
#1
| |||
| |||
Enforceable Prepayment?What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? Arizona My parents, who live in Scottsdale, AZ, have a prepayment penalty that is so vaguely worded that it doesn't seem to be a true prepay, what's more, enforceable. However, the bank is expecting a $30K prepayment penalty. The loan doc says, "PREPAYMENT. Unless otherwise prohibited by law, the Note may be prepaid In whole or In part during the first SIXTY MONTHS, provided a prepayment penally equal to 5% of the prepaid principal balance Is paid simultaneously therewith. Thereafter the principal balance may be prepaid In whole or In part with no penally." Is this enforceable? If not, how do my parents get the bank not to charge a prepay? I'd be happy to provide more documentation if you feel there's a case here. Thanks! |
|
#2
| |||
| |||
| Vaguely worded? It seems rather straightforward. It clearly states that any prepayment of principal, even a dollar, results in a penalty of 5% of the balance before prepaying. Then it says that you only get hit with a penalty once. Not enforceable? Its a contract that your parents agreed to and signed their names on. Please explain why its not enforceable. |
|
#3
| |||
| |||
Language is weird...Quote:
I ask why it's enforceable, for two reasons. First, a broker told me that if this prepayment isn't filed with the state of AZ then it's unenforceable. This was not filed with the state of AZ. Second, according to your interpretation, if my parents paid a dollar more than the base monthly payment, they'd be required to pay 5% of the principal balance, right? Doesn't that seems a bit excessive? I've never heard of that. People overpay their balance all the time, but that doesn't force them into a prepayment penalty situation. But under your interpretation, are you saying it would in this case? Let me raise some additional thoughts, could it be interpreted to mean that the 5% is of the base monthly payment and not the principal? Also, if it does mean 5% of the principal balance, under your original interpretation, would that mean that if during the last several years, my parents have over paid the monthly payment to the equivalent of 5% of the principal, then there would be no more prepayment due? Thanks for your thoughts on this :-) |
|
#4
| |||
| |||
| Quote:
Quote:
|
|
#5
| |||
| |||
| Quote:
I think your interpretation is what I tend to believe. So just over pay the monthly by a dollar, tack on 5% and then walla...no more prepay, right? That's what I tend to believe. As for the reason I believe it wasn't filed, the broker who looked at the loan couldn't find any evidence of a prepay...we told him there was one,but he said he couldn't find it. |
![]() |