What is the name of your state? Pennsylvania
Yesterday I recived a letter in the mail that I had 2 bounced checks and I need to contact the company about them. Now for the life of me I could not remember bouncing any checks. So I called them to find out what was going on. When I talked to them I found out they were checks from 6 years ago... I don't recall ever hearing about them before. I did have some problems with a few checks back then so I am not really doubting that they are checks of mine. The problem here is that they say that they are going to file criminal charges against me for fraud if I do not pay them. Frankly I can't pay the money right now. I am broke. So I am wondering if this is possible? Can they actually file after this long? And can they even file based on the fact that this is not the comapany that the checks where written to, or even the insurance company that covers bad checks for the company they were written too. I am lost... what I don't get is that if these charges could have been filed, then why would the original comapny (the insurance company for bad checks) would not have filed charges to get the money instead of waiting 6 years to only sell the debt to some other company, that now, 6 years later is coming after me? Please help...
Yesterday I recived a letter in the mail that I had 2 bounced checks and I need to contact the company about them. Now for the life of me I could not remember bouncing any checks. So I called them to find out what was going on. When I talked to them I found out they were checks from 6 years ago... I don't recall ever hearing about them before. I did have some problems with a few checks back then so I am not really doubting that they are checks of mine. The problem here is that they say that they are going to file criminal charges against me for fraud if I do not pay them. Frankly I can't pay the money right now. I am broke. So I am wondering if this is possible? Can they actually file after this long? And can they even file based on the fact that this is not the comapany that the checks where written to, or even the insurance company that covers bad checks for the company they were written too. I am lost... what I don't get is that if these charges could have been filed, then why would the original comapny (the insurance company for bad checks) would not have filed charges to get the money instead of waiting 6 years to only sell the debt to some other company, that now, 6 years later is coming after me? Please help...