This is a theoretical question that arose from a discussion in a poker forum.
The theoretical situation is a poker pro getting a fellow player drunk in order to win money from him at the poker table. (The core discussion is whether this makes him a bad pro or not a pro at all, but I don't expect the members here to address that.)
I (a Canadian) stated that getting someone drunk is not a crime. My interlocutor (who is Scottish) replied that getting someone drunk in order to take financial advantage of them _is_ a crime.
Kindly address whether--and where--it's a criminal offense to get someone drunk in order to take financial advantage of them, as well as associated issues.
The theoretical situation is a poker pro getting a fellow player drunk in order to win money from him at the poker table. (The core discussion is whether this makes him a bad pro or not a pro at all, but I don't expect the members here to address that.)
I (a Canadian) stated that getting someone drunk is not a crime. My interlocutor (who is Scottish) replied that getting someone drunk in order to take financial advantage of them _is_ a crime.
Kindly address whether--and where--it's a criminal offense to get someone drunk in order to take financial advantage of them, as well as associated issues.