ballpalyer182
Junior Member
I live in illinois, there is a statute that says that a defendant can only be charged in the county where the crime allegedly occurred.
In my case ( I am being charged with a "theft by deception" and forgery) a company I used to work for claims that I used their contracts to deceive customers. the customers purchased from me and my partner a service which we performed and they paid us directly for. The alleging complainant did no work, provided no service and thus is not out any money.
What i want to discuss is if the law that exists that a says a defendant must have committed the alleged crime in the county where he/she is being charged.
What this company is asking the prosecutor to do is charge me for a crime in the home county of the company. I was a traveling salesperson and never worked or sold or collected money in the county in which the company is based.
They have multiple contracts which they claim they are entitled to the proceeds from where the exchange of money and service did not occur in the county in which i am being charged from.
SO the question is .. Is it legal for the judge to do the company a favor and allow the prosecutor to push charges for the company in a county that by the letter of the law has no rightful business in charging me there.
There have been 2 (402 conferences) in my case in which my lawyer was trying to explain to the judge that he doesnt have jurisdiction. the alleged crimes occurred not in the companys county, but strictly in other counties.
Without yet having ruled on this ( the case has been ongoing for 11 months so far) the judge has been claiming that venue is valid because i worked for a company that was based in his county, and since they are complaining, and since i executed contracts properly in these other counties and returned the monetary proceeds to the home county of the company, venue is valid. basically the judge is saying because the money was supposed to go back to the county of the company, then the alleged crime actually occurred in their home county and thus venue is proper.
this clearly conflicts blatantly with illinois law.
this will make history in illinois because if the judge rules as he says he will (the hearing on venue is in 2 months) then the law on the books about venue will be overturned. in other words then, a defendant can then be tried anywhere someone wants to charge them.
this seems like a tremendous miscarriage of justice.
i would like to see thoughts and opinions of any legal experts on this venue issue.
this is an issue because the companys standing in the county would be an unfair bias regarding an alleged crime that did not even commit in their county.
i will greatly appreciate advice and feedback
In my case ( I am being charged with a "theft by deception" and forgery) a company I used to work for claims that I used their contracts to deceive customers. the customers purchased from me and my partner a service which we performed and they paid us directly for. The alleging complainant did no work, provided no service and thus is not out any money.
What i want to discuss is if the law that exists that a says a defendant must have committed the alleged crime in the county where he/she is being charged.
What this company is asking the prosecutor to do is charge me for a crime in the home county of the company. I was a traveling salesperson and never worked or sold or collected money in the county in which the company is based.
They have multiple contracts which they claim they are entitled to the proceeds from where the exchange of money and service did not occur in the county in which i am being charged from.
SO the question is .. Is it legal for the judge to do the company a favor and allow the prosecutor to push charges for the company in a county that by the letter of the law has no rightful business in charging me there.
There have been 2 (402 conferences) in my case in which my lawyer was trying to explain to the judge that he doesnt have jurisdiction. the alleged crimes occurred not in the companys county, but strictly in other counties.
Without yet having ruled on this ( the case has been ongoing for 11 months so far) the judge has been claiming that venue is valid because i worked for a company that was based in his county, and since they are complaining, and since i executed contracts properly in these other counties and returned the monetary proceeds to the home county of the company, venue is valid. basically the judge is saying because the money was supposed to go back to the county of the company, then the alleged crime actually occurred in their home county and thus venue is proper.
this clearly conflicts blatantly with illinois law.
this will make history in illinois because if the judge rules as he says he will (the hearing on venue is in 2 months) then the law on the books about venue will be overturned. in other words then, a defendant can then be tried anywhere someone wants to charge them.
this seems like a tremendous miscarriage of justice.
i would like to see thoughts and opinions of any legal experts on this venue issue.
this is an issue because the companys standing in the county would be an unfair bias regarding an alleged crime that did not even commit in their county.
i will greatly appreciate advice and feedback