<BLOCKQUOTE><font size="1" face="Verdana, Arial">quote:</font><HR>Originally posted by twiggs2u:
My husband and I had a verbal agreement with his uncle to buy an auction house that he purchased. I had looked into getting a pre-approved loan to bid on it. He said that he would go ahead and buy it for us and we could fix it up and pay rent to him while our loan was going through. AFTER we worked on it, he said that he couldn't sell it to us for three years because of some tax he had to pay. Personally, I think that is a load of crap. Now he is hinting that he don't want to sell it to us. I have put alot of time and money in this houose. I know, I am very stupid for not getting it in writing. I was under the impression that in the state of Tennessee, a verbal agreement was binding. Can he evict us and not give us any compensation for the money that we spent on the house? Also, can he sell it to someone else after he had aggreed to give us first option to buy the house? I really need some help here and I don't have alot of time. Please respond. Thank you, Twiggy<HR></BLOCKQUOTE>
Generally any agreement regarding the sale of real estate needs to be in writing to be enforceable. However, as homeguru stated you may still be entitled to the expenses. In addition, I think it is worth talking to a lawyer to see if their is an exception here to the statute of frauds(the writing requirement) that allows you the basis to enforce this agreement. You relied on the agreement and partially performed -- that may be enough. Plus it will cost very little to talk to a lawyer compared to losing what you have put in plus moving expenses.
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Law on, Kevin
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Kevin O'Keefe
Founder & Fearless Community Leader
[This message has been edited by Prairielaw (edited July 22, 2000).]
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