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pramos

Guest
My wife has been told that my signature is required in order for her to process a new mortgage at a lower interest rate, although the home was owned by her prior to our marraige and she qualifies for the mortgage based on her salary alone. Is this a legal requirement?
 


HomeGuru

Senior Member
Is the property and mortgage currently in only her name?
If not or if so, it could be the lender's requirement.
 
P

pramos

Guest
Neither mortgage nor deed has me listed...I gather that this a requirement of the lender...thanks for your insight!
 

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