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  #1  
Old 03-20-2001, 02:52 PM
WendySBC
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I live in New Jersey. My ex and I worked out a buyout deal in which I signed over ownership to him and obtained a mortgage on the property for the balance of payment. It was to be a balloon payment and he is now in default by almost a year and is also in default by not keeping the property in good repair and a few other stipulations. The mortgage gives me several options in the event of default, one of which is to take possession of and manage the property. Since I am already residing on the property can I just give him a notice that I am assuming possesion or do I have to get a court order?
  #2  
Old 03-21-2001, 12:11 AM
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Your post is confusing. Why would you sign over the property to him and be responsible for the mortgage?
  #3  
Old 03-21-2001, 12:03 PM
WendySBC
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Sorry, I guess I did not make myself clear. I am the mortgage holder (lender) on the property I signed over to him, he is the borrower. He gave me a downpayment on the buyout agreement amount and the mortgage is for the balance he owes me.
  #4  
Old 03-21-2001, 12:53 PM
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You need to read your mortgage document as to your remedies. Generally, you must give him a demand notice of default and to cure by a certain date. Then if no action by him, file court action to foreclose on the property.
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