My husband had a judgment filed in 1995 by an unscrupulous doctor who said he wouldn't charge for follow-up visits but did. My husband responded by phone & mail, but the doctor (in VA) filed a judgment for this $148. He would've appeared in court (my hubby), but he had moved to NM. We bought a house in 1995 and sold it in 1996 - the judgment was "explained away" to the mortgage company - they lent us the money based on our excellent credit. Also in 1999 we were approved for a mortgage but backed out of the purchase. Now in Jan. 2001 we are in Minnesota and were told by the mortgage company (US Federal Credit Union) that we must pay the judgment before they can lend us over $250,000. We have the $148 but we refuse to pay it because it was an unfair charge in 1995 and we disputed it. Why would 2 other mortgage companies, one in Utah and one in Arizona, approve a mortgage and Minnesota will not? They said that the judgment becomes the first mortgage giving the doctor who filed the judgment the right to seize our property. Is this right? What recourse do we have? The mortgage co. in AZ was about to pay it for us (a no-brainer - why lose hundreds of thousands of dollars in interest for a mere $148?), but we backed out of the deal. Please help, because we are pre-approved, looking for a house and possibly another mortgage company! Thanks! |