how can a judge make a property ruling without the property owner(s) being present?

[dee1224]

What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? Vermont

 

[STEPHAN]

For example if they were properly served but do not show up.

 

[dee1224]

For example if they were properly served but do not show up.

no. we were never served and the ruling was reguarding a dog that belongs to a relative that lives here but is NOT the land owner. judge ruled that only one dog can be on the property (named as his dog) and that our dog has to go. He either lied and said he owned the property or his atty never asked. can we do anything??

 

[STEPHAN]

When was the ruling?

How do you know about it? Were you now served?

 

[dee1224]

When was the ruling?

How do you know about it? Were you now served?

ruling was on Friday 8/8. we know because this person came back here and said our dog had to go, the judge said so. we were never notified about the property being involved at all. the case was him and his dog (accused of animal cruelty). I don't understand how the property even became involved.

 

[STEPHAN]

And you saw the ruling?

 

[dee1224]

And you saw the ruling?

no. saw nothing. had no idea. we were at work. he has no papers, but we called his court appointed atty today to find out what the frig. and it sounded like she did not know that he was not the property owner (he was the previous property owner). but said that was the ruling and they hardly ever get reversed. is she blowing smoke because she didn't confirm who owned the property? can this be overturned?
I mean it's our property, our home, our dog who is being told to leave it's home (it is a pet, an indoor dog). it should have ruled that he can have no dogs - he's the accused. no one told us anything about us having to have a lawyer or that it involved our property and/or home. how in the hell did this happen?