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  #1  
Old 08-15-2001, 05:43 PM
Jack1989
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Landlocked definition


I'm in Pennsylvania and working on my easement problem. I found that a previous owner of the now landlocked property had several other pieces of property that when connected accessed a public road and touched a line on the now landlocked property. I would like to know if a piece just touches another piece, is that enough to say the property is not landlocked?
Thanks in advance for your help. Jack
  #2  
Old 08-15-2001, 06:08 PM
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Join Date: May 2000
Location: Catatonic State
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No, it's not that easy and you have a complex issue based on your previous posts.
You need to hire an attorney.
  #3  
Old 08-15-2001, 08:04 PM
Jack1989
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Sorry for the shortness of the post. I didn't want to take up your time with the whole story again. We have hired an attorney and in order to assist him we are doing some of the research ourselves. He's a good attorney and we were lucky to get him. But, as with all good attorneys, he's extremely busy.

The 3 pieces of property, that we found through deeds, were owned by the person who sold off our piece in 1880. All the pieces, when put together, go from a public road and touch the now landlocked piece, They were owned by the seller of our piece prior to 1880 so now we think that when he sold our piece in 1880 he did not landlock the property. What do you think?

Thanks again, Jack
  #4  
Old 08-15-2001, 09:08 PM
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Location: Catatonic State
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Sorry, I don't know since I can't see the survey maps, the title report etc.
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