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Guest
I am an active member of the USAF and i am confused to the comment that many military members make in regards to " being sued". Many military and government members claim that because they serve in the military they cannot be sued. Can you please shed some light on this topic for me, if possible.
Also, is it possible to sue someone if they break a verbal agreement. I know they it is always enforced to " get it in writing", but the verbal agreement was in regards to the purchase of a mobile home. A mobile home was to be purchased if the total amount of the selling price could be reached. Many banks could only morgage a certain amount( 2000 less then asking!) due to gross income by the individual. The seller was not willing to negotiate less then the asking price. The main point was that the seller could not move into a new home unless he first sold the existing home, in verbal agreement that the buyer was very interested in the home and agreed to purchase, he( seller) went out and purchased a new home in full understanding that the buyer was to purchase the home. Unfortunately (getting back to loans and banks) the buyer was unable to get a loan for the full asking price, and with the seller not willing to negotiate the price, the buyer found a better deal with another home. The buyer explained the situation to the seller( understanding that the seller was in between a rock and a hard place) and later found out that he was being sued by the sellers wife( non-military) for breach of verbal agreement. Is this possible? No paperwork was written up on the matter at all!! Let me mention that the cost between the two homes was in difference of $21,000!! Thats a savings of $21,000. I am willing to any info on this matter. Thanx
Also, is it possible to sue someone if they break a verbal agreement. I know they it is always enforced to " get it in writing", but the verbal agreement was in regards to the purchase of a mobile home. A mobile home was to be purchased if the total amount of the selling price could be reached. Many banks could only morgage a certain amount( 2000 less then asking!) due to gross income by the individual. The seller was not willing to negotiate less then the asking price. The main point was that the seller could not move into a new home unless he first sold the existing home, in verbal agreement that the buyer was very interested in the home and agreed to purchase, he( seller) went out and purchased a new home in full understanding that the buyer was to purchase the home. Unfortunately (getting back to loans and banks) the buyer was unable to get a loan for the full asking price, and with the seller not willing to negotiate the price, the buyer found a better deal with another home. The buyer explained the situation to the seller( understanding that the seller was in between a rock and a hard place) and later found out that he was being sued by the sellers wife( non-military) for breach of verbal agreement. Is this possible? No paperwork was written up on the matter at all!! Let me mention that the cost between the two homes was in difference of $21,000!! Thats a savings of $21,000. I am willing to any info on this matter. Thanx