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wemisshi

Guest
I live in a rental property in GA. The land lady broke the lease. She owes us approximately $2,000. She refuses to sign a "moveout agreement" (as recommended previously here.) We know we can put a mechanics lean on the property. We are trying to avoid it.
My question is this: If I have a receipt showing that she owes me monies, can I send a copy of the receipt to her with a letter "kindly explaining" that since she still owes me monies, I would like to use a portion of those monies towards the upcoming rent that I owe her. Would this be legal? It seems that if she owes me monies, and we technically do not have a lease, she should be able to allow us to use the debt to us and apply it to the debt we owe her.
Monies owed for monies owed.
Thanks.
 


HomeGuru

Senior Member
<BLOCKQUOTE><font size="1" face="Verdana, Arial">quote:</font><HR>Originally posted by wemisshi:
I live in a rental property in GA. The land lady broke the lease. She owes us approximately $2,000. She refuses to sign a "moveout agreement" (as recommended previously here.) We know we can put a mechanics lean on the property. We are trying to avoid it.
My question is this: If I have a receipt showing that she owes me monies, can I send a copy of the receipt to her with a letter "kindly explaining" that since she still owes me monies, I would like to use a portion of those monies towards the upcoming rent that I owe her. Would this be legal? It seems that if she owes me monies, and we technically do not have a lease, she should be able to allow us to use the debt to us and apply it to the debt we owe her.
Monies owed for monies owed.
Thanks.
<HR></BLOCKQUOTE>

How did L break the lease and why does she owe you money? How did you determine that you can file a mechanics lien and that you technically have no lease? Please provide the details to the circumstances.
 

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