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  #1  
Old 11-09-2001, 10:44 PM
Rick Standifer
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Question

Personal Property or Real Property


I live in Texas. I have a clear title to a mobile home which is on property belonging to someone else. The property was sold at auction for back taxes unknown to me. My mobile home, which still has the tongue and axles attached, was included in the property description and I am being told I have lost my house. Is this possible?
  #2  
Old 11-09-2001, 11:11 PM
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Join Date: May 2000
Location: Catatonic State
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If you have a lease then you have a right to be there.
If there is no lease then the land owner also has interest in "your" mobile home.
  #3  
Old 11-10-2001, 03:04 PM
Rick Standifer
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Doesn't the distinction between personal and real property come into play? The mobile home, according to the definition on this website, would seem to be classified as personal property and therefore not be attached to the real property much the same as a car or truck. I purchased the mobile home completely seperate from the property owner and moved it onto the lot. I am not interested in staying, I am buying a house, but I don't want to give my mobile home to someone without compensation.

Last edited by Rick Standifer; 11-10-2001 at 03:07 PM.
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