S
smays
Guest
We purchased a house last April in Pennsylvania in a private sale from the homeowner. Orginally the homeowner purchased it from a women who owned our house and a small house beside it and it was considered 1 property, with a lot size o 53 x 160. The property was split and she retained the smaller house, which is on a 22 x 160 lot and our home sits on a 31 x 160 lot. The problem is when we originally purchase our house, the person we bought it from said that we owned 4 ft of ground that the smaller house's fence sat on. We have been in the process of trying to have our property lines defined and will soon have it surveyed but can the original homeowner and their realtor sell the home without defined property lines and not disclose this to the prospective buyer? The other issue may be that the "missing" 4 ft of our property is being used by the neighbor on the other side of our house and has for about 10 years, and they have a 6 ft fence that may be on our property depending on where the lines fall. With them using property for so long, does this forfeit the land to them? Thanks in advance for any advice.