real estate questions

[2girls4me]

CT

File Date: Jul 22 2008 Return Date: Aug 05 2008
* Last Action Date: Jul 23 2008 ADR Status: Not Applicable
Case Type: PROPERTY - FORECLOSURE
List Type: .
Disposition Date:
Judge/Magistrate: Trial List Claim:
Disposition:
* 'Last Action Date' is a data entry date, not actual date

Parties / Attorneys
Party Name & Address
Pty No. Pltf / Def Self-
Rep. Non Appear No Fee Party

AMERICAN TAX FUNDINGLLC 01 P

Entry No Entry Date Description Initiated By Argu able Result Result Date Ordered By
100.50 Jul 22 2008 FM NOTICE REQUEST RETURN P No
101.00 Jul 22 2008 FORECLOSURE MED INELIG Court No


I was wondering if anyone knows what this means. I got this by looking up a case on the jud.ct.gov website.

Also, it appears as though their was a person A (the mom), who owned the house and then had judgement liens put on her by her workplace, the power company, etc. Since then, she did quitclaim deeds to her two children. Does that mean all 3 of them own the home now? Or just her kids? Does that mean she paid off the judgement lien?

At any rate, Now the american tax company has a foreclosure suit pending. I'm assuming this doesn't actually put the house being at risk of being foreclosed since it is paid off, right? What is probably happening? And why is it that the mom, the two kids, and everyone that has judgement liens on the house are all listed as defendants?

Thanks!

 

[HomeGuru]

CT

File Date: Jul 22 2008 Return Date: Aug 05 2008
* Last Action Date: Jul 23 2008 ADR Status: Not Applicable
Case Type: PROPERTY - FORECLOSURE
List Type: .
Disposition Date:
Judge/Magistrate: Trial List Claim:
Disposition:
* 'Last Action Date' is a data entry date, not actual date

Parties / Attorneys
Party Name & Address
Pty No. Pltf / Def Self-
Rep. Non Appear No Fee Party

AMERICAN TAX FUNDINGLLC 01 P

Entry No Entry Date Description Initiated By Argu able Result Result Date Ordered By
100.50 Jul 22 2008 FM NOTICE REQUEST RETURN P No
101.00 Jul 22 2008 FORECLOSURE MED INELIG Court No


I was wondering if anyone knows what this means. I got this by looking up a case on the jud.ct.gov website.

Also, it appears as though their was a person A (the mom), who owned the house and then had judgement liens put on her by her workplace, the power company, etc. Since then, she did quitclaim deeds to her two children. Does that mean all 3 of them own the home now? Or just her kids? Does that mean she paid off the judgement lien?

At any rate, Now the american tax company has a foreclosure suit pending. I'm assuming this doesn't actually put the house being at risk of being foreclosed since it is paid off, right? What is probably happening? And why is it that the mom, the two kids, and everyone that has judgement liens on the house are all listed as defendants?

Thanks!

**A: and who are you in all of this?

 

[2girls4me]

Someone who needs to know.

 

[FlyingRon]

Quit claims won't affect the liens nor stop foreclosures.

You don't have to pay off anything nor get the liens released to quit claim things. You don't even have to own the property to quit claim it.

Given the dates on this thing, I would say the foreclosure sale has either already happened or is very close.

 

[2girls4me]

So, if I quit claim my totally paid off house to you even though I had judgement liens on them, would you then be responsible to pay the judgement liens if the home ever sold? Or would I still be responsible?

Can I quitclaim part of the home to someone else and have us both be owners? Or does it have to be the whole thing?

You would think that a foreclosure would be soon, but the "med inelig" thing happened a long time ago and nothing has happened since according to the courts website. Any ideas on what "med inelig" means? Does that mean the court ruled it ineligable for foreclosure?

 

[2girls4me]

So, if I quit claim my totally paid off house to you even though I had judgement liens on them, would you then be responsible to pay the judgement liens if the home ever sold? Or would I still be responsible?

Can I quitclaim part of the home to someone else and have us both be owners? Or does it have to be the whole thing?

You would think that a foreclosure would be soon, but the "med inelig" thing happened a long time ago and nothing has happened since according to the courts website. Any ideas on what "med inelig" means? Does that mean the court ruled it ineligable for foreclosure?

 

[FlyingRon]

So, if I quit claim my totally paid off house to you even though I had judgement liens on them, would you then be responsible to pay the judgement liens if the home ever sold? Or would I still be responsible?

If there are liens on it, the thing is not totally paid off. The mortgage may have been satisfied but the tax lien was still there.

A quit claim gives up whatever interest the grantor has in the property without making any representations as to what that is. I can quit claim the Empire State Building to you, and it means nothing because I have no interest in it.

You don't have to pay off the liens as the new owner, but you are still subject to the property being foreclosed upon. You may lose whatever interest you have. Further no sane buyer would allow the sale to close until all the encumberances are dealt with.

Can I quitclaim part of the home to someone else and have us both be owners? Or does it have to be the whole thing?

You can quit claim your interest to yourself and someone else which splits whatever part you owned.

You would think that a foreclosure would be soon, but the "med inelig" thing happened a long time ago and nothing has happened since according to the courts website. Any ideas on what "med inelig" means? Does that mean the court ruled it ineligable for foreclosure?

I suspect that all that indicates is that they were checking the owner for medicare eligibility or some other thing that might have given some consideration on the case.


Frankly, if this inheritance means anything to you worth saving you'd be well advised to get a real estate lawyer to look into everything pronto.