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Old 01-29-2001, 09:22 AM
BristolB
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I will try and make this as brief as possible. My son and his girlfriend purchased a home together a little over 2yrs ago and have now split up. The home is in Massachusetts and is currently under agreement. There was no written agreement between them regarding division should they seperate. She provided most of the downpayment and he has been paying the mortgage for the entire time of ownership. Under this situation, how is the profit from the home split?
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Old 01-29-2001, 10:24 AM
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The profit is split in whatever way the 2 owners now agree. If there can be no agreement between the parties, a court may rule under partition.
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