P
Poorboy
Guest
Myself and x-wife built a house and paid for it on x-wife's parents property.Lived there for 15 years in Kentucky.
Upon divorceing house was determined to be marital property,however I had no deed in my name for house or large tract of land on which dwelling is located.Court would not allow sell of house(objected-did not prevail).The court did allow x to dwell in the house until children reached legal age and deduction of child support from my equity in the dwelling.
After several years and the children are grown we go back to court to settle my child support.The court grants x interest on support and maintaince of house over the years,which then doubled my debt.The court then said since I no longer have equity in the dwelling I was to sign a deed transferring any right of ownership of house and the property it sits on to a buyer friend of the x.I refuse to sign (did not sign divorce decree).Judge then says he will transfer on my behalf.I file bankruptcy before judge deeds to friend of x.
Federal court does not grant x possession of my interest in marital residence because of debts owed to her and relieved me of all debts dischargeable via federal bankruptcy law.I then again have equity in the home/land.
Appearing in state court I attempt to enter the bankruptcy discharge into the court record.The state judge refuses to allow the discharge to be made a part of the divorce court record and again says he will transfer ownership on my behalf.I have never seen any court documentation that the transfer took place and have heard from a third party the property is in my name.
The person who I was told was buying the house,did live before and after the judge said he would deed on my behalf because I would not sign a deed,has moved out.The house is empty.
Is this due process?
Upon divorceing house was determined to be marital property,however I had no deed in my name for house or large tract of land on which dwelling is located.Court would not allow sell of house(objected-did not prevail).The court did allow x to dwell in the house until children reached legal age and deduction of child support from my equity in the dwelling.
After several years and the children are grown we go back to court to settle my child support.The court grants x interest on support and maintaince of house over the years,which then doubled my debt.The court then said since I no longer have equity in the dwelling I was to sign a deed transferring any right of ownership of house and the property it sits on to a buyer friend of the x.I refuse to sign (did not sign divorce decree).Judge then says he will transfer on my behalf.I file bankruptcy before judge deeds to friend of x.
Federal court does not grant x possession of my interest in marital residence because of debts owed to her and relieved me of all debts dischargeable via federal bankruptcy law.I then again have equity in the home/land.
Appearing in state court I attempt to enter the bankruptcy discharge into the court record.The state judge refuses to allow the discharge to be made a part of the divorce court record and again says he will transfer ownership on my behalf.I have never seen any court documentation that the transfer took place and have heard from a third party the property is in my name.
The person who I was told was buying the house,did live before and after the judge said he would deed on my behalf because I would not sign a deed,has moved out.The house is empty.
Is this due process?