G
girg
Guest
In California, if someone signs an agreement to sell a piece of California property to me for fair market value, all cash deal with no contingencies, can I take him to court to force the sale if all he used to sign his name were the initials of his first, middle, and last name?
Would it make a difference if he sent the agreement to me under separate cover signed with his full name, and the cover letter makes reference to various terms of the agreement he only initialed?
If there is legal precedent for my case one way or the other, can you give me the name of any case name or other legal authority?
Thanks.
Would it make a difference if he sent the agreement to me under separate cover signed with his full name, and the cover letter makes reference to various terms of the agreement he only initialed?
If there is legal precedent for my case one way or the other, can you give me the name of any case name or other legal authority?
Thanks.