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Convoluted heirship

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kkbTexas

Junior Member
I live in Texas.

My sister, a widow, died without a will and I understand that my mother (my father is deceased) and I (her only sibling) each inherit half of her "estate". I put it in quotes because she was, for most intents and purposes, destitute. Here's where it gets convoluted:

Her husband also died without a will approximately one year earlier. He was the only child in a one-time pretty wealthy family that did not believe in paying federal taxes or property taxes or any kind of taxes for that matter. As a result there was quite a bit of land now gone because it was seized by the county for taxes over the years. The IRS also says he/she owes them $120,000 (and growing with interest) for back income taxes for properties he sold (neither my sister or her husband worked). They placed a lien on the beach property below.

A little tangential information:

Before my sister died, there was also a beach house they had owned that was sold at auction for taxes ($65,000) and it was my mother's understanding that my sister could gain ownership of the property again if (within a certain time period) she re-paid the person that bought it at auction plus some specified percent additional fee. There is a person we have known for a long time who said he wanted to buy the property the beach house is on (apparently it's a desirable location for his company) for much more than the $65,000+. So he put up the required amount (auction price plus the additional required percentage) and paid it to the person that bought the house at auction. Unfortunately our (we have the same lawyer) lawyer did not put this money in escrow or anything, it was paid directly to the person. Even though he was paid correctly, the person refused to hand over the property. So there's been a long drawn out court battle to force him to release the property. The IRS will have to be paid from the eventual proceeds of the sale of the beach house, but there is expected to still be, potentially, as much as $100,000 left over.​

In addition, before he died, my sister's husband never transferred some of his deceased parents' assets to his name. These assets are oil and gas royalties, and we've recently learned, the ownership of part of an oil well. Some of the royalty checks have been held for years because the companies say they didn't know where to send them. Also, some have been turned over to the state. There are also a multitude of stock certificates we've uncovered, which, for the most part seem to be useless - most if not all of the companies are no longer in business. They were in his parents' names.

My sister also never had the majority of these items transferred to her name after her husband died.

My mother had herself granted as Independent Administrator (free of court supervision) of HIS estate. I've been reading the Texas laws and I understand that you have to provide a list of assets at the court proceedings. There's no way whatever she presented was correct because 1) we still have no idea how much these royalties are worth because most aren't transferred yet, and 2) we have found more assets since then. The court has never been updated. My mother is 79 and doesn't always understand what she's being told. For example, she thinks because she is the Independent Administrator, the assets basically belong to her. When she went to put some of the royalties in her name, they asked some questions and made her put it in her name AND my name. She has not done that with other things if the people don't ask the right questions. She makes weird assumptions that can completely change the meaning of things. Hence my questions here.

So, who inherits the assets? Do they basically pass from his parents to him, and then to my sister, and then to me and my mother equally after creditors are paid? Even if some assets are still in his parents' names and my mother is the administrator of his estate?

Facts:
1) Neither my sister or her husband had any children, with each other or with others.
2) My sister's husband was an only child.
3) My sister's husband's parents were both deceased when he died.
3) I am my sister's only sibling.
4) My sister had only one parent (my mother) when she died.

Wow, I think that's all the information. If not, please let me know. Like I said, it's very convoluted. :eek:

Thanks.
 


justalayman

Senior Member
For example, she thinks because she is the Independent Administrator, the assets basically belong to her.
she is probably not the best person to have as administrator.


Before my sister died, there was also a beach house they had owned that was sold at auction for taxes ($65,000) and it was my mother's understanding that my sister could gain ownership of the property again if (within a certain time period) she re-paid the person that bought it at auction plus some specified percent additional fee. There is a person we have known for a long time who said he wanted to buy the property the beach house is on (apparently it's a desirable location for his company) for much more than the $65,000+. So he put up the required amount (auction price plus the additional required percentage) and paid it to the person that bought the house at auction. Unfortunately our (we have the same lawyer) lawyer did not put this money in escrow or anything, it was paid directly to the person. Even though he was paid correctly, the person refused to hand over the property. So there's been a long drawn out court battle to force him to release the property. The IRS will have to be paid from the eventual proceeds of the sale of the beach house, but there is expected to still be, potentially, as much as $100,000 left over.
by what right did the money man purchase the property OR did he purchase the rights of the person that purchased the property at the tax sale? The right of redemption is a right held by the title owner only. He had no right to redeem the property and the fact he paid more than the redemption amount and directly to the winner of the auction, I would think he simply purchased the property from the auction winner. It would be up to him to fight out possession with the auction winner with nothing going to your sister.

and the redemption period, from what I can find, is only 6 months. Did this transaction take place before the redemption period expired?


So, who inherits the assets? Do they basically pass from his parents to him, and then to my sister, and then to me and my mother equally after creditors are paid? Even if some assets are still in his parents' names and my mother is the administrator of his estate?
via administration of the estate of the owner of the asset it will be transferred to the proper heir. Through administration of each of the subsequent estates, it will be transferred to the proper heir (or required to be sold to liquidate it to pay debts of the estate in question).
 

LdiJ

Senior Member
Just to recap:

This is what is SUPPOSED to happen:

The administrator of the husband's estate (when there are debts, such as the tax debt) is supposed to liquidate the assets of the estate, pay off all the creditors, and distribute the remainder to the estate of the wife. If the wife had no debts, then the estate of the wife could then distribute the money to her heirs. If its not necessary to liquidate all of the assets to cover the debts, then some assets can be distributed instead of cash.

Those royalties etc., that have been put in your mother's and your name should NOT have been because the husband's estate had debts and could not be closed and distributed to his wife's estate, and therefore be available to be distributed to you and your mother, until those debts were paid. Therefore your mother has already serious breached her responsibility as the administrator of the husband's estate. This is particularly serious since there is a large amount of IRS debt in the husband's estate.

As far as the beach property is concerned, I suspect that situation is complicated as well because I suspect that it wasn't handled properly. What should have happened there was that there should have been a contract where the buyer placed a down payment towards the property, for enough for the husband to redeem it from the person who bought it at auction, and all monies should have been held in escrow until all parties sat down at the closing table and finalized the transaction from the auction buyer, back to the husband and then to the end buyer. Therefore its highly possible that the end buyer is also a creditor of the husband's estate, leaving one more reason why his estate could not be distributed to the wife's estate until all was settled.

Unfortunately, this thing has spiraled so badly that I do not think it can be fixed without getting an attorney involved...which is going to add one more creditor to the husband's estate.

At this point I think that your 79 year old mother is in a serious world of hurt...think potential criminal charges from the IRS...and has absolutely no choice at all but to get an attorney involved. However, I do think its fixable if no monies from either of the estates have actually been spent by either of you.
 

kkbTexas

Junior Member
Well, I don't know what happened, but I posted a reply to your post and now it seems it's not here...
 

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