S
STheno
Guest
What is the name of your state? Minnesota
We were married in Mexico ten years ago. Neither of us had our divorce papers from our previous marriages which the Mexican officials said was necessary, but ignored. I had to use my maiden name (from my birth certificate). Is this a legal marriage?
As well, financial accounts have always been separate. I have unequivocal proof that I used my money to buy and maintain the home we share. With the exception of one bill monthly, I pay all other bills associated with maintaining this property. Some of the contents were from before we were married and they were mine. Any of the contents after we were married was purchased by me.
As well, as well, I inherited a substantial amount of money at the beginning of last year. Last May, I bought a lake home with part of it. Hind sight is 20-20, but the deed is in both of our names. There is no mortgage as it was a cash transaction. I again, can easily prove where the money came from. The only contribution my husband has made to this property is to put a cement floor in the garage and pay for the LP gas for a few months. As I can easily prove where the money came from to purchase this property, as well as contents, and because the money paid was my inheritance, does he have any claim to it, other than perhaps what little he has put into it?
We were married in Mexico ten years ago. Neither of us had our divorce papers from our previous marriages which the Mexican officials said was necessary, but ignored. I had to use my maiden name (from my birth certificate). Is this a legal marriage?
As well, financial accounts have always been separate. I have unequivocal proof that I used my money to buy and maintain the home we share. With the exception of one bill monthly, I pay all other bills associated with maintaining this property. Some of the contents were from before we were married and they were mine. Any of the contents after we were married was purchased by me.
As well, as well, I inherited a substantial amount of money at the beginning of last year. Last May, I bought a lake home with part of it. Hind sight is 20-20, but the deed is in both of our names. There is no mortgage as it was a cash transaction. I again, can easily prove where the money came from. The only contribution my husband has made to this property is to put a cement floor in the garage and pay for the LP gas for a few months. As I can easily prove where the money came from to purchase this property, as well as contents, and because the money paid was my inheritance, does he have any claim to it, other than perhaps what little he has put into it?
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