Is it her house too ????

What is the name of your state? TEXAS
Please please help !!!! My question seems fairly simple .. if more details are needed do not hesitate. My husband purchased a mobile home while married to his ex wife .. she had no job and extremely bad credit therefore the loan was in his name only.They were married 7 years living together 2, in the divorce decree she was ordered to transfer into her name after showing interest in doing so... it never was done and she soon became 9 months late paying and finally it will be repossessed. Because they were married when it was purchased is she responsable for half the debt ??? or will my husband be solely responsable ?

Also because of this situation when it is time for me to purchase a home next year will I be penalized because of my husbands credit or if I apply for a loan will it solely be based on my credit history which is perfect ? We have only been married a year.

Thankyou for all advice offered

If the loan was in his name only he is solely responsible for the debt. A court order cannot override a signed contract between lender and borrower.

You can use your credit only to apply for a mortgage or other credit.

If the divorce decree stated she had to pay it, this does not mean the original lender has to go by that. What it does is give him the option of taking her back to court for not following the court order. He will still have to pay it but he might be able to get something back from her, not likely but if she has a job its worth a shot.