E
Ex Is Nuts
Guest
What is the name of your state? OK
OK, I have to ask this, because I was taken aback by what was written in another post.
My ex and I are splitting the marital bills 50/50. But according to the thread I read, just because the court order says she gets bill "X", it does not obsolve me from being liable for bill "X". Is this correct? How can I obsolve myself from being liable for the debts that are awarded to HER?
This also brings another thought to mind.... I am taking one family home, she is taking the other. How do I obsolve myself from being liable for the debts on the one she is taking? I had requested that she refinance to get my name off of the note, however, she and her lawyer have asked that we have a "hold harmless" provision instead because she doesn't have the money to refinance. However, if the original contract with the lender supercedes the hold harmless provision, then rightfully, if she defaults, then they can come after me, then I have to pay it and then try to get the money back from HER, correct? (Which is like trying to grab and turn a greased doorknob).
I hate to sound paranoid, but she is VERY bad about not paying her bills.... I don't want to end up getting stuck in a potientially BADDDDDDDDDD situation, Someone straighten me out here as to what I need to do to best protect myself in this divorce please..... Thanks!!!!!
OK, I have to ask this, because I was taken aback by what was written in another post.
My ex and I are splitting the marital bills 50/50. But according to the thread I read, just because the court order says she gets bill "X", it does not obsolve me from being liable for bill "X". Is this correct? How can I obsolve myself from being liable for the debts that are awarded to HER?
This also brings another thought to mind.... I am taking one family home, she is taking the other. How do I obsolve myself from being liable for the debts on the one she is taking? I had requested that she refinance to get my name off of the note, however, she and her lawyer have asked that we have a "hold harmless" provision instead because she doesn't have the money to refinance. However, if the original contract with the lender supercedes the hold harmless provision, then rightfully, if she defaults, then they can come after me, then I have to pay it and then try to get the money back from HER, correct? (Which is like trying to grab and turn a greased doorknob).
I hate to sound paranoid, but she is VERY bad about not paying her bills.... I don't want to end up getting stuck in a potientially BADDDDDDDDDD situation, Someone straighten me out here as to what I need to do to best protect myself in this divorce please..... Thanks!!!!!
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