K
Kid Fresh
Guest
I have a couple of questions about a certain scenario.
A couple was married for about 7 years. They owned a home jointly. The wife was murdered. The husband is now about to go on trial as the defendant for her murder. The defendant gave Power of Attorney to his parents. The defendant has now secured a personal loan from his parents to help pay his attorney fees, using the jointly owned home as collateral.
It is my understanding that if the defendant is found guilty of the crime, then the home would be part of the wife’s estate; which would go to her natural mother and father.
Is this correct? Would that loan collateral agreement be null and void or would the defendants parents be able to foreclose on the house in order to collect the personal loan?
It is my understanding that the wife did not have a will.
Thanks in advance.
A couple was married for about 7 years. They owned a home jointly. The wife was murdered. The husband is now about to go on trial as the defendant for her murder. The defendant gave Power of Attorney to his parents. The defendant has now secured a personal loan from his parents to help pay his attorney fees, using the jointly owned home as collateral.
It is my understanding that if the defendant is found guilty of the crime, then the home would be part of the wife’s estate; which would go to her natural mother and father.
Is this correct? Would that loan collateral agreement be null and void or would the defendants parents be able to foreclose on the house in order to collect the personal loan?
It is my understanding that the wife did not have a will.
Thanks in advance.