bfoster said:
If the damage is presumed by statute, and there are no actual damages (as in your example) -- what would be the basis for a jury awarding a plaintiff damages in such a case.
For example, a person is accused of stealing -- an indictable offense, and therefor actionable per se in Indiana (and most states, I'd guess), which means that like a libel case, injury need not be prooved (which is normally done by showing that money was lost).
If you don't need to proove injury -- what's the basis for relief? Wouldn't it be compensation for injury to the reputation, since that is the basis of the tort? Does pain and suffering come in to play? Everything I've read says that special or actual damages don't need to be plead.
My response:
You are correct, that in a "libel per se" action, actual damages are not pled; however, in addition to punitive damages - - which are assessed by the court or jury, "actual damages" can still be pled in addition to other damages. The statutes just say that they don't have to be pled. The problem becomes, "How much is my reputation in the community worth?" The "automatic" damages are left up to the court, or a jury, to determine.
Now, let's say you're in the auto repair business. Someone says that you use stolen parts to repair cars, and that you're a thief. The rumor spreads like wildfire. The statement is, of course, untrue and you can prove all of your parts purchases with receipts from reputable parts suppliers.
But, as bad luck would have it, people start to believe the rumors that you're a thief because they believe that where there's smoke, there's a fire. Your auto repair business takes a nose dive, and it's Bankruptcy City, next stop.
So, not only are you entitled to punitive damages for the "per se" violation of being wrongly labeled as a criminal and a thief, but you're also entitled to the actual, provable, damages to your auto repair reputation and business losses.
IAAL