S
scrappermom
Guest
What is the name of your state? Arizona
I am totally flabbergasted and stumped. I don't even know where to go for this one.
My husband and I seperated in Oct. 1999 and we got back together in July 2000. During the time we were seperated, he bought a used truck from a "friend", it was a lemon. But after several thousands of dollars my husband was able to get it up and running. Since he bought it from his buddy, he never received a bill of sale and his buddy had his name put on it as the lienholder. Now, when my husband and I got back together I asked his buddy for a breakdown of what my husband has paid and how much is still owed. He never could give this to me. At the time I told him that if he wants any remaining money then he had better tell me what the price of the truck was and what was paid and what is still owed. Well, he kept saying that his place was a mess and he didn't know where his notes were... yada yada yada.
That was in October of 2000. To this day he still has not given me this information.
Now.... let's go ahead into March of this year (2004), my husband needed a car. Above truck no longer runs. So this buddy, found some gal in his trailer park with a 90 Ford Mustang for sale. $450, my husband pays this gal the money. He never got a bill of sale or a receipt, I know I know, pretty dumb, but I was out of town when this happened. Anyway, the gal brought the title over to the buddy and asked him to give it to my husband. He says sure, no prob. Well, now for 4 weeks we have been trying to get the title from him. He either isn't home or now the big thing is he doesn't have a phone so we have to chance it when we drive over there.
So, here we are, we need the title to register it, now the buddy is saying that he isn't going to give us the title until we pay the rest on the truck. Hmmm.... so he's blackmailing us. These are two separate transactions, he wasn't the owner of the car, just the middle man. Is there anything we can do legally??? Any advice is greatly appreciated.
I am totally flabbergasted and stumped. I don't even know where to go for this one.
My husband and I seperated in Oct. 1999 and we got back together in July 2000. During the time we were seperated, he bought a used truck from a "friend", it was a lemon. But after several thousands of dollars my husband was able to get it up and running. Since he bought it from his buddy, he never received a bill of sale and his buddy had his name put on it as the lienholder. Now, when my husband and I got back together I asked his buddy for a breakdown of what my husband has paid and how much is still owed. He never could give this to me. At the time I told him that if he wants any remaining money then he had better tell me what the price of the truck was and what was paid and what is still owed. Well, he kept saying that his place was a mess and he didn't know where his notes were... yada yada yada.
That was in October of 2000. To this day he still has not given me this information.
Now.... let's go ahead into March of this year (2004), my husband needed a car. Above truck no longer runs. So this buddy, found some gal in his trailer park with a 90 Ford Mustang for sale. $450, my husband pays this gal the money. He never got a bill of sale or a receipt, I know I know, pretty dumb, but I was out of town when this happened. Anyway, the gal brought the title over to the buddy and asked him to give it to my husband. He says sure, no prob. Well, now for 4 weeks we have been trying to get the title from him. He either isn't home or now the big thing is he doesn't have a phone so we have to chance it when we drive over there.
So, here we are, we need the title to register it, now the buddy is saying that he isn't going to give us the title until we pay the rest on the truck. Hmmm.... so he's blackmailing us. These are two separate transactions, he wasn't the owner of the car, just the middle man. Is there anything we can do legally??? Any advice is greatly appreciated.