J
Justuneek1
Guest
I am in Wisconsin. In 1997 my husband and I divorced. He owned the house before we met and he never put my name on it or the mortage. We divorced using prose, him keeping the house and all responsibilites. In the divorce decree it says in the event of the sale of the house after the divorce, the wife is entitled to 1/4 of the sale of the property.
Do I need to get a lien on the house? If so, how do I go about doing that? Is the divorce decree enough to sue him for my 1/4 of the sale of the property?
What should my next steps be?
He has no idea this information is in the divorce decree. Never even read the whole thing before signing it. The house is up for sale now.
Do I need to get a lien on the house? If so, how do I go about doing that? Is the divorce decree enough to sue him for my 1/4 of the sale of the property?
What should my next steps be?
He has no idea this information is in the divorce decree. Never even read the whole thing before signing it. The house is up for sale now.