verbal contract rights

What is the name of your state?live in texas.. rent home, pay rent. verbal contract 2 years... home is sold by owner, legally how much time do i to vacate?

i moved in to owner finance, which owner denied after 4 months paying rent , . pay rent on time monthly for 2 years.
owner put under real estate company to sell.. now property sold, how long before i have to move legally..... can they deny my rental payment.

this is all verbal. nothing in writing.

i have been told i can buy it, but i cannot get financing due to my credit rating

Lease contracts for more than 1 yr must be written to be valid. You would probably be considered a tenant "at sufferance", meaning the owner can end your lease anytime.

shortbus said:

Lease contracts for more than 1 yr must be written to be valid. You would probably be considered a tenant "at sufferance", meaning the owner can end your lease anytime.

Click to expand...

**A: again, averything in your response is incorrect snortfuss. Stop posting if you do not remotely know the correct answers.

And your much more accurate answer is ... what exactly?

shortbus said:

And your much more accurate answer is ... what exactly?

Click to expand...

**A: no, I am not playing games with you.
YOU prove that you are correct. You post the cite that backs up your statements.

snortfuss? that is funny

shortbus said:

Lease contracts for more than 1 yr must be written to be valid.

**A: so you are saying that a verbal lease for 12 months and 1 day is not valid? Post the cite that backs up your position.
**********

You would probably be considered a tenant "at sufferance", meaning the owner can end your lease anytime.

Click to expand...

**A: post the cite that backs your claim that the tenant in this case is a tenant at sufferance. And you are saying that the property owner can end the lease at anytime, such as tommorrow or next week due to the type of tenancy?