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misrepresentation?

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yoda127

Junior Member
undefinedWhat is the name of your state?
New Jersey

Someone wrote aletter and a report on me that is being used heavily in being terminated. This paerson is an unknown tomy organization.
He is DO Doctor of ostheopathy not a MD medical doctor.

Can he use MD after his name in the letter header and also use MD after his signature? He did not use DO at all in either location.

Thanks need help
 


BelizeBreeze

Senior Member
Well duh. He's a doctor with the same priviledges and rights as any other person who graduated from medical school and was licensed to practice in the state. :rolleyes:
 

yoda127

Junior Member
Yes doctor of otheopathy

New Jersey
Yes he is a doctor, of osteopathy who are DOs. Then could a MD sign his name with DO. But here is an example... Let's say a person looking for a family doctor who has absolutely no faith in, what that person considers non traditional medicine. Manipulation and touching a nerve in foot to heal a soar throat etc. I am being extreame for my example. This is just the consumers view.
That consumer would eschew a DO and only seak an MD.
So could a DO put on his or her shingle John Doe, MD and John Doe actually graduated from a DO school.
Also, the public has little understanding of A DO. So if a DO was signing his name inorder to be more impressive he would chosse MD which everyone is familiar. So you are telling me DOs and MDs could sign there name, present there credential on a sign either way, what ever would be more advantageous to them? I think there is more to this topic than you answer gave. Yes they are both licensed to patice medicine in what ever state. But does their license state as DO or MD or it does not matter. Please a more thoughtful answer.
 

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