Can seller demand c0-signor after contract is signed and assigned without recourse is

What is the name of your state?
Virginia
My husband signed a Retail Installment Sale Contract with Williams Honda. He was the only person on the contract; I was not even present. A co-buyer wasn't indicated; the contract was assigned without recourse; and my husband obtained financing through his credit union. Now the seller has called and demanded that I come into the dealership with him to co-sign the loan. Granted, I was never present, never signed anything, and the contract was made out and signed by all parties, and no co-signer was ever indicated. Also, I have reason to believe that they may have pulled up my credit report without my consent. Can they demand that I act as a co-signer after the fact? If we refuse, can they demand the car back? Thank you.

Tammyz1

Was the loan approved by your husband's credit union with just him indicated as the borrower? If it was approved, I don't see how they can require a co-signer since they aren't the ones providing the financing.

Also, dealerships can be fined by the FTC if they run a credit report without consent. It would be interesting to find that out if you can.

Who placed the request for the financing, the dealer or your husband? If it was the dealer, yes they can required a co-signer. It probably means the financing will not go through on your husband's credit alone.

If we refuse, can they demand the car back?

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Well, if you refuse, you either have to give the car back or find some other way to pay for it -- you don't get the car for free.