Restraining Order

To- I Am Always Liabel:

I understand what you are saying - but my question is, is the Defendant who has order which states I cannot go to his residence or place of business in violation of his own restraining order if he goes to where I work? Then what recourse do I have prior to filing a motion? If he is prohibited also, am I able to call police, in other words does the restraining order technically work both ways even though he initiated it.

Lindsy said:

To- I Am Always Liabel:

I understand what you are saying - but my question is, is the Defendant who has order which states I cannot go to his residence or place of business in violation of his own restraining order if he goes to where I work? Then what recourse do I have prior to filing a motion? If he is prohibited also, am I able to call police, in other words does the restraining order technically work both ways even though he initiated it.

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My response:

Unless otherwise ordered by the court to be "reciprocal" Restraining Orders for both parties, then such orders are only "One Party" and "One Way" orders. So, technically, the Petitioner who has the Order in their favor IS NOT violating any orders of the court when they purposefully place themselves in "harms way".

But, like I said to you, by the Petitioner placing themselves "purposefully" in harms way, they are demonstrating that they don't need the protection, and that the Restraining Order was a "sham".

And, like I said before, the Petitioner has opened him/her self up to a large damages lawsuit for Malicious Prosecution, Abuse of Process, and other monetary Sanctions.

IAAL