What is the name of your state? Kentucky
Is there a case against me?I sold a dog to a lady for $500.00.The dog had a hernia that was not visible all the time.The hernia was not restrictive.Anyway,I made it clear to the lady that the dog did have a hernia before she purchased the dog.There was no guarantee on the dog.No contract.Everything was just verbal.But I did give her the dog's akc registration papers.Anyway she called me that night and said the dog had worms.So I talked her through giving the dog medicine for the worms and she was to take her to the vet the next day.The vet checked her out and gave her some more worm medicine and had finally found the hernia I had told the lady about after alot of searching.At that time the lady went ahead and scheduled the hernia surgery.this was on saturday and the Sugery was to be Monday.She called and told me about the surgery scheduled and that they were very happy with the dog.The only thing that was wrong with the dog besides the hernia that she new about, was the worms.So they proceeded with the surgery.She calls me a week or so later telling me that the dog had ran a 104 temp after the surgery.But she was doing good.Then then questioned me about the dog's heat cycle.she was thinking that the dog was pregnant.The dog showed no signs of heat since last July.That was when she was in heat last.she asked me had she been around anyother dog.i told her the only dog she was every around was my male dog and I had checked her before she was around him to make she there was no signs of heat.They were just together while I was cleaning.There was no tie that I have any knowledge of.Anyway she took the dog back to the vet at 40 days (from the time of purchase) for an xray and he said there was no puppies present that he could see.I was told that he saw fluid and that it was a bacterial infection and that this infection had to have came from my male dog's semon.That is what I'am being threatened to be sued over.That my male dog gave a bacterial infection to the female dog that I had sold her.She wants her money back for the dog,vet bills and grooming.Am I liable for this?She also stated she would take another dog but it had to be registered the same and be the same breed as the one I had sold her.I told her I did not have another one.I had bought this dog myself when she was 6 weeks old from a breeder.Any advise would be greatly appreciated.
Is there a case against me?I sold a dog to a lady for $500.00.The dog had a hernia that was not visible all the time.The hernia was not restrictive.Anyway,I made it clear to the lady that the dog did have a hernia before she purchased the dog.There was no guarantee on the dog.No contract.Everything was just verbal.But I did give her the dog's akc registration papers.Anyway she called me that night and said the dog had worms.So I talked her through giving the dog medicine for the worms and she was to take her to the vet the next day.The vet checked her out and gave her some more worm medicine and had finally found the hernia I had told the lady about after alot of searching.At that time the lady went ahead and scheduled the hernia surgery.this was on saturday and the Sugery was to be Monday.She called and told me about the surgery scheduled and that they were very happy with the dog.The only thing that was wrong with the dog besides the hernia that she new about, was the worms.So they proceeded with the surgery.She calls me a week or so later telling me that the dog had ran a 104 temp after the surgery.But she was doing good.Then then questioned me about the dog's heat cycle.she was thinking that the dog was pregnant.The dog showed no signs of heat since last July.That was when she was in heat last.she asked me had she been around anyother dog.i told her the only dog she was every around was my male dog and I had checked her before she was around him to make she there was no signs of heat.They were just together while I was cleaning.There was no tie that I have any knowledge of.Anyway she took the dog back to the vet at 40 days (from the time of purchase) for an xray and he said there was no puppies present that he could see.I was told that he saw fluid and that it was a bacterial infection and that this infection had to have came from my male dog's semon.That is what I'am being threatened to be sued over.That my male dog gave a bacterial infection to the female dog that I had sold her.She wants her money back for the dog,vet bills and grooming.Am I liable for this?She also stated she would take another dog but it had to be registered the same and be the same breed as the one I had sold her.I told her I did not have another one.I had bought this dog myself when she was 6 weeks old from a breeder.Any advise would be greatly appreciated.