My ex and I lived in CA, recieved loans through Navy Fed....moved to MN, then divorced through MN and I came back to CA. I was to take my car loan (cosigned) and he was to take his car loan (not cosigned), his credit card and his personal loan per the divorce.
He stopped making payments on his loans and the bank began taking my payments and applying them to his loans. I called the bank and they told me that the contract states that they will not honor divorce decrees. I explained to them the loan given to him which was falling behind was fraudulant because he was unemployed and lied and that i should not be responsible for their mistake. They told me they were going to repo my car if I didn't make a payment, but every payment I made was being applied to his loans so I was forced into bankruptcy in order to keep the car.
Is it true that a bank contract supercedes a court decree? Should I have been penialized if they didn't check his info and gave him a loan while he was unemployed? Is there ANYTHING that I can do???
He stopped making payments on his loans and the bank began taking my payments and applying them to his loans. I called the bank and they told me that the contract states that they will not honor divorce decrees. I explained to them the loan given to him which was falling behind was fraudulant because he was unemployed and lied and that i should not be responsible for their mistake. They told me they were going to repo my car if I didn't make a payment, but every payment I made was being applied to his loans so I was forced into bankruptcy in order to keep the car.
Is it true that a bank contract supercedes a court decree? Should I have been penialized if they didn't check his info and gave him a loan while he was unemployed? Is there ANYTHING that I can do???
