• FreeAdvice has a new Terms of Service and Privacy Policy, effective May 25, 2018.
    By continuing to use this site, you are consenting to our Terms of Service and use of cookies.

Representing myself in a Set Aside

Accident - Bankruptcy - Criminal Law / DUI - Business - Consumer - Employment - Family - Immigration - Real Estate - Tax - Traffic - Wills   Please click a topic or scroll down for more.

ajonate

Junior Member
What is the name of your state? Nevada

I have been trading low cost undeveloped properties in Nevada. Typically I pay $500 to $1000 for a lot (I offer the assessed value, as assessed by the County), so there isn't a lot of value to work with. On three occasions I have encountered properties where the heir's name is not on the deed (normally due to a deceased spouse or parent). As required by Nevada law, a Court has to get involved to do a 'set aside without administration' if the asset is real property.

With those three properties, I hired a lawyer to do the set asides. While I pay the legal fees, the lawyer's client is actually the heir. Once the set aside is complete, the heir has agreed to sell me the property at a fixed price. The reason I hired a lawyer is primarily that I can't represent the heirs without practicing law without a license, although preparing a petition to set aside an estate is a straightforward task that I can handle.

The problem is two-fold. First, it's expensive to have a lawyer to the set aside (normally about $700). Second, I submitted the jobs to the law office 9 months ago and they aren't done. I've even gone so far as to prepare the Petition and Order for the lawyer, but it still isn't done. The lawyer is competent, but he has had severe difficulty with this office staff.

My question is this; if I were to get an heir to execute a quitclaim deed, transferring all interest in that property to me, could I do the set aside myself? After all, the heir's interest would then be mine, so the set aside would not represent the interests of the heir. I would petition the court for a set aside of the estate of the deceased, but I would be the petitioner by virtue of an attached quitclaim deed.

Would that in any way constitute practicing law without a license?
 


seniorjudge

Senior Member
What is the name of your state? Nevada

I have been trading low cost undeveloped properties in Nevada. Typically I pay $500 to $1000 for a lot (I offer the assessed value, as assessed by the County), so there isn't a lot of value to work with. On three occasions I have encountered properties where the heir's name is not on the deed (normally due to a deceased spouse or parent). As required by Nevada law, a Court has to get involved to do a 'set aside without administration' if the asset is real property.

With those three properties, I hired a lawyer to do the set asides. While I pay the legal fees, the lawyer's client is actually the heir. Once the set aside is complete, the heir has agreed to sell me the property at a fixed price. The reason I hired a lawyer is primarily that I can't represent the heirs without practicing law without a license, although preparing a petition to set aside an estate is a straightforward task that I can handle.

The problem is two-fold. First, it's expensive to have a lawyer to the set aside (normally about $700). Second, I submitted the jobs to the law office 9 months ago and they aren't done. I've even gone so far as to prepare the Petition and Order for the lawyer, but it still isn't done. The lawyer is competent, but he has had severe difficulty with this office staff.

My question is this; if I were to get an heir to execute a quitclaim deed, transferring all interest in that property to me, could I do the set aside myself? After all, the heir's interest would then be mine, so the set aside would not represent the interests of the heir. I would petition the court for a set aside of the estate of the deceased, but I would be the petitioner by virtue of an attached quitclaim deed.

Would that in any way constitute practicing law without a license?
The answer has not changed since last August:

https://forum.freeadvice.com/showthread.php?t=332774
 

ajonate

Junior Member
My previous question did not include the heir's interests being quitclaimed to me.

I should also point out that I did follow your advice and hired an attorney, but so far that hasn't done me any good either.
 

seniorjudge

Senior Member
My previous question did not include the heir's interests being quitclaimed to me.

I should also point out that I did follow your advice and hired an attorney, but so far that hasn't done me any good either.
I didn't give you any advice.

Anyway, preparing that quitclaim deed (and I repeat myself) is UPL as Jetx told you last August:

You bet!!! That plus every other 'document' you help prepare!!!

From the Nevada Bar:
"What traditionally comes to mind as UPL are the scrivener services, legal document preparation companies that go beyond mere typing or translation services and engage in the practice of law. While this remains the focus of the Bar's UPL initiative (all five of the injunctions involve such companies), the Bar also receives UPL complaints against lawyers, which are handled through attorney discipline. This aspect of the UPL question attorneys who either fail to supervise paralegals adequately, or who practice law without proper authority in a jurisdiction where they are not licensed.

NRS 7.285 makes it a crime to engage in the unauthorized practice of law, with penalties ranging from a misdemeanor for the first conviction to a class E felony for a third conviction within seven years.
"
 

seniorjudge

Senior Member
But I know that the preparation of deeds by the parties involved is common practice. Heck, they even sell them at office supply stores.
Here was your question:

Would that in any way constitute practicing law without a license?

Jetx answered it last August. Nothing has changed.


NOW (and, I admit, this is subtle) if the SELLER prepares the quit claim deed, it is not UPL since he is representing himself.

If the BUYER prepares the qcd, it is UPL, plain and simple.
 

ajonate

Junior Member
NOW (and, I admit, this is subtle) if the SELLER prepares the quit claim deed, it is not UPL since he is representing himself.

If the BUYER prepares the qcd, it is UPL, plain and simple.
Thank you for being patient with me. I'm really not trying to be difficult.

I'm beginning to understand now. I don't see it as such a subtle point. The seller is executing a document when he deeds property to someone else, not the buyer. As far as the agreement goes the buyer does nothing but accept the document.

One detail that I didn't mention before, none of the sellers are likely to be residents of Nevada. The properties I deal with were typically sold in Magazine ads in the 1960s and 1970s, and most property owners live in the eastern Unites States. It is, if course, not cost effective for those people to appear in person when they are only receiving a few hundred bucks for the properties.

So back to the original question, once the quitclaim deed (not prepared by me) is executed, then the interest in that property is mine. At that point, what might a judge say if I submitted a petition to set aside the estate of someone not in my family?
 

Find the Right Lawyer for Your Legal Issue!

Fast, Free, and Confidential
data-ad-format="auto">
Top