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Levy On Wages

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Izzy

Guest
I live in the state of Florida and my wages are going to be garnished for unpaid back taxes, my question is, what is the most that they can take from each pay check? is it 25% or more?

[Edited by Izzy on 02-07-2001 at 09:36 PM]
 


crager34

Member
This doesn't answer your question...but

Does the IRS have authority without a court order? Does the property have to be turned over without a court order? Are the rights, as guaranteed by the United States Constitution, violated?
The IRS frequently serves levy notices on third parties who may be holding your property. The IRS knows that all of the notices of levy that are sent to you or your employer are incorrect unless it is for property subject to levy upon which levy has been made.
The Code is clear that IRS agents should take their case to court just like any other agency* that wants to garnish property to allow you to be heard and to ensure your rights to due process will not be violated. This can be understood by reading IRC section 7608 wherein Congress clearly instructs and outlines the revenue agents/officers authority. And, indeed this explains what the IRS agents are supposed to do in every case. To enforce collection of a delinquent tax, the IRS must be authorized and you must have a liability.

Sending a Notice of Levy, is not sending a levy, and is not sufficient to reach private property, unless the property is already in the custody and control of the Secretary. The procedure to reach property in the private sector by suit is given in the Internal Revenue Code under Code sections 7401 and 7403, as follows:

SECTION 7401, Authorization.

No civil action for the collection or recovery of taxes, or of any fine, penalty, or forfeiture,

shall be commenced unless the Secretary authorizes or sanctions the proceedings and the Attorney General or his delegate directs that the action be commenced.

And section 7403, as follows:

SECTION 7403, Action to enforce lien or to subject property to Payment of tax.

(a) Filing - In any case where there has been a refusal or neglect to pay any tax, or to discharge any liability in respect thereof, whether or not levy has been made, the Attorney General or his delegate, at the request of the Secretary, may direct a civil action to be filed in a district court of the United States to enforce the lien of the United States under this title with respect to such a tax or liability or to subject any property, of whatever nature, of the delinquent, or in which he has any right, title, or interest, to the payment of such tax or liability. For purposes of the preceding sentence, any acceleration of payment under section 6166(g) shall be treated as a neglect to pay tax.

(b) Parties - All persons having liens upon or claiming any interest in the property involved in such action shall be made parties thereto.

(c) Adjudication and decree - The court shall, after the parties have been duly notified of the action, proceed to adjudicate all matters involved therein and finally determine the merits of all claims to and liens upon the property, and, in all cases where a claim or interest of the United States therein is established, may decree a sale of such property, by the proper officer of the court, and a distribution of the proceeds of such sale according to the findings of the court in respect to the interests of the parties and of the United States. If the property is sold to satisfy a first lien held by the United States, the United States may bid at the sale such sum, not exceeding the amount of such lien with expenses of sale, as the Secretary directs.

This is the due process written into the Internal Revenue Code as mandated by the Fourth Amendment to the Constitution of the United States of America. If the IRS wants to enforce collection of a tax, they have to file suit in Federal District Court, obtain a judgment, and execute the judgment with a court order to lawfully enforce the collection of the delinquent tax. The only, obvious exception to this is when the Secretary already has possession of some property. In that case no court order is needed to reach the property since the property is already possessed
Please note that a "Notice of Levy" is not a levy or seizure. The "Notice of Levy" has no legal effect in the private sector unless it is accompanied with a Judicial Court Order and a "Notice of Seizure." The following cites will demonstrate that a "Notice of Levy" carries no authority to "Levy" and that a "Levy" must be done through "seizure" of the property.
"A 'Levy' for delinquent taxes requires that property be brought into legal custody through seizure, actual or constructive, and is absolute appropriation of property levied on, and a mere NOTICE OF INTENT TO LEVY DOES NOT CONSTITUTE A LEVY" (Emphasis added). Freeman v. Mayer 152 F. Supp. 383, Affd 253 F.2d 295 (3rd Circuit 1958).

"A 'Levy' requires that the property be brought into legal custody through seizure, actual or constructive, and is absolute appropriation in law of property levied on, and MERE NOTICE OF INTENT TO LEVY IS INSUFFICIENT" (Emphasis added). United States v. O'Dell, 160 F.2d 304, 307 (6th Circuit 1947).

The IRS is to comply strictly to the conditions imposed by statute in the seizure and levy process. Goodwin v. United States, 935 F2d 1061, (9th Cir. 1991). A stickler for enforcing the statutory notice it is entitled to receive, the government should be no less punctilious with respect to the statutory notice it is required to give. Kulway v. United States, 917 F2d 729, 735 (2nd Cir. 1990).

"Notice of levy does not constitute levy, since, for there to be levy, property must be brought into legal custody through actual or constructive seizure." Callahan v. Haxton (184, MD Fla) 84-2 USTC.

I have a lot more if needed.



 
L

loku

Guest
Garnishment

The 25% you speak of is the maximum that can be garnished under the National Consumer Protection Act; however, the Act does not apply to income tax owed.

As I interpret it, the IRS has the power to garnish all wages over the exempt amount. The exempt amount is the total of your standard deduction and the aggregate amount of the deductions for personal exemptions you are allowed, divided by 52. That does not mean they will necessarily go for the maximum.

The following is excerpted from the Internal Revenue Code. It explains the exempt amount.

Sec. 6334(d) EXEMPT AMOUNT OF WAGES, SALARY, OR OTHER INCOME.--

Sec. 6334(d)(1) INDIVIDUALS ON WEEKLY BASIS.--In the case of an individual who is paid or receives all of his wages, salary, and other income on a weekly basis, the amount of the wages, salary, and other income payable to or received by him during any week which is exempt from levy under subsection (a)(9) shall be the exempt amount.

Sec. 6334(d)(2) EXEMPT AMOUNT.--For purposes of paragraph (1), the term "exempt amount" means an amount equal to--

Sec. 6334(d)(2)(A) the sum of--

Sec. 6334(d)(2)(A)(i) the standard deduction, and

Sec. 6334(d)(2)(A)(ii) the aggregate amount of the deductions for personal exemptions allowed the taxpayer under section 151 in the taxable year in which such levy occurs, divided by

Sec. 6334(d)(2)(B) 52.

Unless the taxpayer submits to the Secretary a written and properly verified statement specifying the facts necessary to determine the proper amount under subparagraph (A), subparagraph (A) shall be applied as if the taxpayer were a married individual filing a separate return with only 1 personal exemption.

Sec. 6334(d)(3) INDIVIDUALS ON BASIS OTHER THAN WEEKLY.--In the case of any individual not described in paragraph (1), the amount of the wages, salary, and other income payable to or received by him during any applicable pay period or other fiscal period (as determined under regulations prescribed by the Secretary) which is exempt from levy under subsection (a)(9) shall be an amount (determined under such regulations) which as nearly as possible will result in the same total exemption from levy for such individual over a period of time as he would have under paragraph (1) if (during such period of time) he were paid or received such wages, salary, and other income on a regular weekly basis.
 
L

loku

Guest
Crager 34, thank you. I was looking for the authority of the IRS to seize property and you gave me the site. IRC Sec. 7608(a)provides in pertinent part that any investigator, agent, or other internal revenue officer by whatever term designated, whom the Secretary charges with the duty of enforcing any of the criminal, seizure, or forfeiture provisions of subtitle E or of any other law of the United States pertaining to the commodities subject to tax under such subtitle for the enforcement of which the Secretary is responsible may--(4) in respect to the performance of such duty, make seizures of property subject to forfeiture to the United States.

Sec. 7401, which you site, gives them the aded right to bring civil suit.

Crager 34--please stop giving people on this site bad advice!
 

crager34

Member
Loku;

First - Your welcome.

Second - I didn't give any advice

Third - If the law was followed properly by the IRS, then all of what we said we be legit. However, Izzy probably received a Notice of Intent to Levy, which if so, due process was not followed, especially if the employer began garnishing those wages. If you re-read my post, you will see I included court cases to back me up.

Who's afraid of the big, bad wolf.......

[Edited by crager34 on 02-09-2001 at 03:41 PM]
 
I

Izzy

Guest
Izzy said:
crager34 said:
Loku;

First - Your welcome.

Second - I didn't give any advice

Third - If the law was followed properly by the IRS, then all of what we said we be legit. However, Izzy probably received a Notice of Intent to Levy, which if so, due process was not followed, especially if the employer began garnishing those wages. If you re-read my post, you will see I included court cases to back me up.

Who's afraid of the big, bad wolf.......

Thank you both for your help!...........Izzy
[Edited by crager34 on 02-09-2001 at 03:41 PM]
 

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