What is the name of your state? CT
Five months ago, my sister called her mother-in-law's house to check on the status of her children. Her husband's brother answered and told her he (the brother) was calling the police for harassment. (I know some reading this will assume she was. She wasn't.) The report was filed and included a line that said the police told my sister not to call her mother-in-law's house. No charges were filed.
Four months later, her husband had not returned the children from his required visitation time. My sister called the mother-in-law's house--where the husband now lives--to check on the status and whereabouts of her children.
The mother-in-law then filed a harassment complaint against my sister, for which she has now been arrested. The basis for the charge was the fact that she was ordered not to call the house four months previously and this second call apparently violated a police order. No other calls had been made in that time and the call itself was to find out where her children were. It lasted (documentable) for approximately 15 seconds.
My sister avoids these people as much as possible. All she wants is a divorce and they are angry with her for leaving her marriage.
So, two questions: 1) the call , as described by the mother-in-law herself in the complaint, was "Is (the husband) there?" the answer was no. Then my sister asked "where are the kids?" the answer was "I think he's bringing them home". End of call. How is this harassment?
2) Does a note by the police in someone's complaint saying not to call have an unlimited force of law? This seems out of line since it seems to me she's being assumed guilty of the original complaint simply because someone filed a report even though no warrant was issued and no judge ever heard the matter.What is the name of your state?
Five months ago, my sister called her mother-in-law's house to check on the status of her children. Her husband's brother answered and told her he (the brother) was calling the police for harassment. (I know some reading this will assume she was. She wasn't.) The report was filed and included a line that said the police told my sister not to call her mother-in-law's house. No charges were filed.
Four months later, her husband had not returned the children from his required visitation time. My sister called the mother-in-law's house--where the husband now lives--to check on the status and whereabouts of her children.
The mother-in-law then filed a harassment complaint against my sister, for which she has now been arrested. The basis for the charge was the fact that she was ordered not to call the house four months previously and this second call apparently violated a police order. No other calls had been made in that time and the call itself was to find out where her children were. It lasted (documentable) for approximately 15 seconds.
My sister avoids these people as much as possible. All she wants is a divorce and they are angry with her for leaving her marriage.
So, two questions: 1) the call , as described by the mother-in-law herself in the complaint, was "Is (the husband) there?" the answer was no. Then my sister asked "where are the kids?" the answer was "I think he's bringing them home". End of call. How is this harassment?
2) Does a note by the police in someone's complaint saying not to call have an unlimited force of law? This seems out of line since it seems to me she's being assumed guilty of the original complaint simply because someone filed a report even though no warrant was issued and no judge ever heard the matter.What is the name of your state?