Quick question in property ownership transfer

Hello, I am from Indiana and I have a question about ownership transfer. Lets say that a person brings a contract where the other person will give up his/her assets and will comply with future documents (notary public, etc). The person signs it along with the person with the contract. Can this simple example lead to ownership transfer? Notice how this contract can lead to another contract. Is this allowed?

PS. I am a student for a law class, and help is needed. Thanks.

That is the worst fact summary I've heard from a person in a law class. Think about it and try again.

im actually in a intro law class to be more specific and a freshman. I see the current basics such as the offer/consideration/acceptance, but I was wondering something as simple as the scenario above can be taken into consideration.

Im sorry if the example is kind of naive

Im assuming this would not even be considered a contract. Am I right?