One heir sold jointly owned property and spent proceeds, can they be prosecuted?

What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? KY
Several years ago a partial owner of heir property sold asset worth several thousand dollars and spent money for self. Other heirs unaware but now have evidence/proof of sale. Can they prosecute the partial owner for theft? Total amount over 10,000. What could person be charged with, and if they made restitution could they still be prosecuted?

1Perple said:

What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? KY
Several years ago a partial owner of heir property...

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What does that mean? What is "heir property?"

In any event, I rather doubt that this would be pursued criminally, particularly if restitution is made. But one can never tell. The injured parties are free to contact the police.

Heir property refers to property inherited by several individuals, who still have ownership shares.

What sort of property are we talking about? How was "ownership" established/recorded?

Property passed through intestate estate. Share amounts have been established. Property was real property with acreage, valuable timber was sold and a copy of amount paid by invoice is available. One person with one of the smaller shares has lived at property, sold timber and kept money, along with sale of other assets that other owners may not be able to prove.