L
lstirewalt
Guest
My boyfriend recently got a speeding ticket in Missouri while taking me to the doctor. I'm nine months pregnant, so he wanted me to pretend like I was in labor. I didn't think I could do it, and be realistic, but while we were finding a spot to pull over, my back siezed up, and I was in major pain. But, that's beside the point. All my questions are underlined and italicized.
My main question is this: The officer didn't ask him to sign the ticket making him liable to dispose of the charges or appear in court. I'm sure that doesn't mean he's not liable, but what exactly does that mean?
He wants to fight the ticket because he was speeding to avoid an accident. We're pretty sure it won't get him anywhere, but he thinks he has to try. I guess if it makes him feel better for trying, I don't see a problem with it. But, is speeding to avoid an accident ever a viable excuse?
I also have another question. If he signs the back of the ticket, therefore pleading guilty, is he only liable for the violations listed in the box describing the violations? The officer said that he didn't right down the failure to provide proof of insurance, but the box next to proof of insurance is checked no. Also, his address on the ticket is a MO address, but he has a CA driver's license. So, if he signs the back of the ticket, does he only have to pay for the speeding violation? That's all that we understood from what the officer said that we had to pay. If that's so, he goes to court, is found guilty of the speeding violation, and doesn't have proof of insurance then; will he also be held responsible for not having insurance, and for having an out of state license?
There was also a new law that went into effect concerning fees for traffic violations the day we got the ticket. But, he got the ticket before the time when the law went into effect. So, if he goes to court, and is found guilty, are his fees under the old law, or the new law?
My main question is this: The officer didn't ask him to sign the ticket making him liable to dispose of the charges or appear in court. I'm sure that doesn't mean he's not liable, but what exactly does that mean?
He wants to fight the ticket because he was speeding to avoid an accident. We're pretty sure it won't get him anywhere, but he thinks he has to try. I guess if it makes him feel better for trying, I don't see a problem with it. But, is speeding to avoid an accident ever a viable excuse?
I also have another question. If he signs the back of the ticket, therefore pleading guilty, is he only liable for the violations listed in the box describing the violations? The officer said that he didn't right down the failure to provide proof of insurance, but the box next to proof of insurance is checked no. Also, his address on the ticket is a MO address, but he has a CA driver's license. So, if he signs the back of the ticket, does he only have to pay for the speeding violation? That's all that we understood from what the officer said that we had to pay. If that's so, he goes to court, is found guilty of the speeding violation, and doesn't have proof of insurance then; will he also be held responsible for not having insurance, and for having an out of state license?
There was also a new law that went into effect concerning fees for traffic violations the day we got the ticket. But, he got the ticket before the time when the law went into effect. So, if he goes to court, and is found guilty, are his fees under the old law, or the new law?