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Business bid for $800. then I get a bill for $1500

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chick62386

Junior Member
We had a bid done for a company to survey a piece of property for $500-$800. The employee did not take down any notes whatsoever. The employee came back with the completed work and it was completely wrong. He came, looked at the property, again bid $500-$800. Then we get the bill for $1500. My husband disputed with the owner. They agreed on $800. We paid him, and left with an invoice that said $800, PAID IN FULL. The next day, we get a letter that says, he reconsidered and we still owed him $700, along with a supposed text message (from the employee that did the work to my husband) that said it would be 1500 and my husbands supposed ok on this price. Is this even a legal form of evidence? Or professional bid for that matter? He did not agree that $1500 was an agreeable price. I don't see how this would stand up in court. Especially since we have an invoice that says paid in full. Please help
 


justalayman

Senior Member
first, it would appear there was never any "bid" or contracted price. At best, it looks to be an estimate with a range, presumably depending on specifics not listed here.

If your husband has a receipt marked "paid in full", the service provider will have a difficult time arguing your husband owes any more than what was already paid...

...unless the owner of the business argues the person that altered the price did not have the authority to determine the price of the service and issue a "paid in full" receipt.
 

swalsh411

Senior Member
...unless the owner of the business argues the person that altered the price did not have the authority to determine the price of the service and issue a "paid in full" receipt.
So it is the customer's responsibly to know the internal decision making hierarchy of a business and who has the authority to do what? :rolleyes:
 

justalayman

Senior Member
So it is the customer's responsibly to know the internal decision making hierarchy of a business and who has the authority to do what? :rolleyes:
sometimes, sometimes not. Of course the OP would claim they have a receipt stating it was paid in full. Depending on the relationship presented, a court may very well accept that as proof of payment in full. There are situations where a receipt such as that would not be upheld. As an extreme example:

the car wash guy at the dealership gives you the keys to a car and a receipt for the $27 you paid him for the brand new car.

It would be obvious to a reasonable person that the car wash guy did not have the authority to sell you the car for $27.
 

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