• FreeAdvice has a new Terms of Service and Privacy Policy, effective May 25, 2018.
    By continuing to use this site, you are consenting to our Terms of Service and use of cookies.

This is something I don't understand...

Accident - Bankruptcy - Criminal Law / DUI - Business - Consumer - Employment - Family - Immigration - Real Estate - Tax - Traffic - Wills   Please click a topic or scroll down for more.

e_leong

Junior Member
California


If someone owns a house "free and clear" and it is estimated to be worth about $1,000,000 and he plans to swap his house for another one, what is the property basis of the $1,000,000 house. Does he have one? Thanks.
 


LdiJ

Senior Member
e_leong said:
California


If someone owns a house "free and clear" and it is estimated to be worth about $1,000,000 and he plans to swap his house for another one, what is the property basis of the $1,000,000 house. Does he have one? Thanks.
His "basis" in the property is the price he paid for it, plus the cost of any improvements that he made. If he inherited the house, it would be the fair market value of the house at the time he inherited it, plus the cost of any improvements made.
 

Find the Right Lawyer for Your Legal Issue!

Fast, Free, and Confidential
data-ad-format="auto">
Top