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Stocks-Wash Sale

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eddie57

Junior Member
What is the name of your state? Texas

What is a true wash sale? Does the repurchase has to be the same number of shares of the same stock?

I purchased 200 shares of xyz on March 1, 2006, and sold them 1 day later at a loss. I then purchased 250 shares of xyz 3 weeks later. Would this be considered a "Wash Sale" in the eyes of the IRS? Or does the share amount have to be the same?

TIA

Eddie
 


abezon

Senior Member
A wash sale is when you sell shares at a loss & purchase 'substantially similar' shares withing 30 days before or after that sale. Substantially similar means same company, same class of shares.

A partial wash sale occurs if you sell 500 shares at a loss, then buy 200 shares 30 days later. In that case, 200/500ths of the loss (40%) would be disallowed as a wash sale. 60% of the loss would be allowed. This gets really tedious when you have a mutual fund with reinvested montly dividends -- you'll get a $600 loss, with $1.20 being disallowed as a wash sale. My software forces me to split the sale into a $599 loss & a $1 loss (disallowed).

In your case, since you purchased more shares than you sold at a loss, the entire loss is disallowed as a wash sale.

You can avoid the entire wash sale problem if you liquidate xyz before Dec 31 & do not purchase any xyz within 30 days before or after that sale. That's usually the first thing I check for when I see that the wash sale rules have been triggered -- did my client cash out the wash shares before the end of the year? If so, I ignore the wash sale nonsense & just enter both sales normally. Technically wrong, but all the IRS can say is I should have arrived at the same net gain/loss by another means, so who cares?

Don't forget that wash sale rules can be triggered by a purchase in one year & a sale in another year.
 

eddie57

Junior Member
Wash Sale Time Window

So a wash sale can occur any time during the year. Is that correct? Also, What if I were to do the same thing with the same stock 4 consecutive times all with losses and all less than 30 days of each other. Would they all be wash sales? I just want to make sure I get this clear.

You said "In your case, since you purchased more shares than you sold at a loss, the entire loss is disallowed as a wash sale." My question is: will I be able to take the loss on the 250 shares of xyz when I sell them?

Thanks

Eddie
 

abezon

Senior Member
Wash sales can be consecutive. And yes, you'll take the 200 share disallowed loss when you sell the 250 shares you now hold.
 

donroro75

Junior Member
Wash Sales help

I purchase 130 mshares of FNM at 12.16
130 sahres of FNM at 7.696
1.1774 dividends reinvestment
I sold 261.1774 shares at $1
and bought 300 shares of the same stock at 1.018 on the same day i sold the 261.1774 shares. Is this a wash sales? Can claim the loss on my taxes?
 

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