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due process- equal protection

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capzen

Junior Member
Arizona
1.A Law that has no way to protect or reach the goal
it was made for to protect is this a true law.
2. The state has the right to make classes of certian occupations, but if your class is not stated or legislated
in laws or stautes of the state are you still legaly in a class meatcuts hairdressers carpenters they all have traits that are their class traits but are they legal ID are they
your class
3.Can a state pull persons from one class to others then
let the 2nd class oversee the 1st
4. Do you have any property rights to your occupation.
Thanks captainzenitram
 


I AM ALWAYS LIABLE

Senior Member
My response:

Let me elaborate for you, Mr. Martinez. It appears that none of us have any idea what it is you're talking about. If you would please explain, in complete sentences, just what it is you're trying to convey, then maybe, just maybe, one or more of us can try to assist you.

Just write it out in plain English.

IAAL
 

HomeGuru

Senior Member
I AM ALWAYS LIABLE said:
My response:

Let me elaborate for you, Mr. Martinez. It appears that none of us have any idea what it is you're talking about. If you would please explain, in complete sentences, just what it is you're trying to convey, then maybe, just maybe, one or more of us can try to assist you.

Just write it out in plain English.

IAAL
Translation: what the hell are you saying? Three attorneys here have no clue. We want to help but can't.
 
L

LadyBlu

Guest
Hell guys, how is he supposed to explain what he meant? He didnt even know what Jack's question mark meant.


I have to tell you after reading his original post, I had the feeling of being on a really fast merry go round, you know how you feel so dizzy you cannot stand up and start feeling ill to your stomache..

BTW IAAL, we miss you over there on the Family Law boards.. have you abandoned us completely?

Ohh and Ziphash has another question for you on the support/custody board. None of us others are worthy to reply to him.
 

HomeGuru

Senior Member
LadyBlu, I know what you're talking about. Some of these posts are so confusing I get dizzy too. Yes so cybersick I need to url.

Signed,
Barfy
 

capzen

Junior Member
due process equal protection

I'm a construction worker not a lawyer boys and girls sorry
If you read early cases on the 14th Amendment, property
is broughtup several times. In the most historical or opinon swaying cases like Slaughter v. Butchers, Mullen v Illinois, Sampson v City of Sheridan it is the most important idea bruoght up. In the last of the slaughter
house cases it is said that your occupation is your most important property because it secures all other property you have. The 1st part of My ? is can occupational property be used in a court case if proven that the state has abused it's police power. Thanks Again
 
J

Jack Mevorach, Esq.

Guest
Mr. Martinez,

My question mark indicated that I did not understand your question. I still do not understand precisely what you are asking.

You ask if "occupational property" can be "used" in a "court case" if it's been proven that the state has abused its police powers.

(1) Please explain what you mean by "occupational property".

(2) What do you mean by "used"?

(3) What "court case"? Is something pending? Please describe the case (who sued who and for what).

Without writing too long a question, please be a bit more specific, and don't be intimidated by attorneys.
 

capzen

Junior Member
due process equal protection

The legislature or goverenment body that make laws,regs or statues have that right and need to protect the general
public from harm. "Sie utere tuo ut allenum nou laedas"
subject to reasonable restraint and regulation as are required to protect the public health,safety,morals and
general welfare and this is police power. No argument,
but on the other end of that there must be a reason and
a real way to reach the goal to protect. If the law can not
actually protect is it a law???

The property issue is (if) and when you prove that a law can not meet it's goal (to protect) and the state can be proven to already knows constitutional how and what it should do if they desire to test occupations, is this not
in a small % a law that has maybe been constructed to do something other then protect. They test each and every Lawyer,Doctor and Hairdresser but in other classes they test one indivdual to qualify the company buisness or
corparation. If the state deems this occupation to dangerous
to the general public way not test like other classes each
person? thanks again
 

capzen

Junior Member
due process equal protection

Mr Mevorach sorry i can't get this across, one more time and I'll leave u along on this thanks
1.legislatures have the power to make law.that power is called a police power when involed in licencing your occupation or driving your car any thing the state does to protect the general public from harm by testing persons
when testing to protect that police power must treat all in the same circumstance or class the same, all doctors lawyers
and hairdressers are tested in Az. In some occupation
the state chooses to test one person to qualify a large
number of persons for the same reason, they test doctor lawyers and hairdressers. this is not treating all in a class the same. The law can not protect because one person can not over see 2 to 200 job at one time so the law is not valid. The property thing comes up because the state has made laws that give one occupation power over another. I believe there are as many states that test like this, than do not. The states that do not test just one to qualifiy any number are contitutionaly correct test all in the same circumstance or test none
I thank u for your time on this and hope for all of your forgivness in this room but this is listed as the constitutonal room and any ? in here if having any validity are going to be alot harder then with in all do respect the traffic court or my dog bite someone rooms. If truly interested in constitutional law the 14 amendment is awesome Grantham v city of memphis state v foss city of louisville v coulter (Slaugtherhouse v butchers) (sampson v city of sheridan) I'm just looking for a reason y these laws have not be over turned cites cases but not personal opinon I've had lots of that Thanks again
 

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