R
Russ1
Guest
If a state rules it has jurisdiction in a case and another court of the same equal rules they DO NOT have jurisdicion. Under the US Constitution can this be done by another state? I had a Texas court rule on my divorce and a year later a Utah court ruled they didn't have jurisdiction to rule since my wife never lived there. The reason I filed for divorce was her case defaulted after a year, so Texas ruled they did had jurisdiction to rule on the divorce. I now am appealing the ruling in Utah........am I wasting my time? Or was the constitution overlooked here.